Business process management (BPM)® is a systematic approach to making an
organization's workflow more effective, more efficient and more capable of
adapting to an ever-changing environment. A business process is an activity or
set of activities that will accomplish a specific organizational goal.
Business Process Manager (BPM)® Certification helps organizations leverage
processes to achieve their goals and be successful. Once processes are
implemented, they must be monitored, evaluated, and optimized to make sure they
are still meeting the goals that they were designed to accomplish. A business
that can successfully manage its processes is able to maintain a competitive
edge, while increasing productivity and efficiency and decreasing costs.
The e-course will introduce participants to business process management.
Participants will learn how business processes can help improve their company’s
bottom line by providing a higher level of quality and consistency for
customers.
E-Course Duration: 20 to 25 Hours
The exam comprises of 50 Multiple Choice Questions out of which the candidate
needs to score 70% (35 out of 50) to pass the exam.
Exams are online and proctored based, using a webcam and a reliable internet
connection exams can be taken anywhere and anytime
The total duration of the exam is 1 hour (60 Minutes).
No external sources of information may be accessed during the exam held via
ProctorU. Further details of the materials permitted are provided:
Identification Proof If a Candidate does not pass the exam in the second (2nd) attempt, the
candidate must wait for a period of at least fourteen (14) calendar days from
the date of their attempt to retake the exam for third (3rd) time or any
subsequent time.
The exam can be taken any number of times. The Business Process Manager (BPM)® Certificate is valid for life.
Business Process Manager (BPM)® is a Registered Trademark of GAQM.
Successfully passing the BPM exam will also earn candidates a total of 15
Learning Hours and 3 Credits towards MBA in Business Management (Master’s
Degree) offered by Charisma University.
Note: The Business Process Manager (BPM)® Certification requires a mandatory
E-Course completion requirement. Once the candidate completes the E-Course, they
will receive a GAQM Learner ID.
Course Outline
Module 1 - The Fundamentals of Business Process Management What is Business Analysis?
What is Enterprise Content Management?
Enterprise Content Management Model
What is Business Process Re-Engineering?
Business Process Re-Engineering Model
Module 2 - Defining Business Process Management What is Business Process Management?
Brief History of Business Process Management
What are the Benefits of Business Process Management?
Reflecting on Processes
Module 3 - The Business Process Life Cycle The Vision Phase
The Design Phase
The Modeling Phase
The Execution Phase
The Monitoring Phase
The Optimizing Phase
Module 4 - Business Process Engineering Business Process Engineering
Change Management
Summary
Module 5 - Information Systems and Goals
System and Subsystems
The Information Systems
Elements of Information Systems
Systems Analysis
Definitions and Goals
Define Logical Specifications and Design
Select the best Alternative Physical System
Module 6 - Systems Design Introduction
Intermediate Steps
Systems Design
Module 7 - Systems Implementation Introduction
Intermediate Steps
Testing and Obtaining Approvals
Systems Implementation - Summary
Module 8 - Systems Operation Post Implementation Review
System Maintenance
Systems Operations QUESTION 1
Six Sigma strives to have a process operate at 99% efficiency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Business activity monitoring is a method to measure the health and
performance of your process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Why is it important to manage an organization’s processes?
A. To increase productivity
B. To decrease costs
C. To increase efficiency
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Business process management (BPM) is a variety of tools and techniques used
to support and manage the design, implementation, and improvement of operational
procedures within an organization.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 As long as you have a vision of where your company should be, you will be
successful. Sharing this vision is not important.
Exam Info Duration 115 MINUTES
Number of Questions 70 Questions
Passing Score 300
Format Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
EXAM OVERVIEW The Professional vSphere 6.7 Exam 2019 validates that an individual can
implement, manage, and troubleshoot a vSphere V6.7 infrastructure, using best
practices to provide a powerful, flexible, and secure foundation for business
agility that can accelerate the transformation to cloud computing.
Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has six to twelve months hands-on
experience installing, configuring, and managing a vSphere solution. The
candidate possesses skills in deploying and
administering guest operating systems on a vSphere infrastructure. The
successful candidate also has basic knowledge of: storage, networking, hardware,
business continuity and disaster recovery,
security, environmental monitoring and troubleshooting.
Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections
below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending
on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
If a section is missing from the list below, please note it is because the exam
has no testable
objectives for that section. The objective numbering may be referenced in your
score report at the
end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be
necessary.
Sections Included in this Exam Section 1 – VMware vSphere Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Identify the pre-requisites and components for vSphere
implementation
Objective 1.2 – Identify vCenter high availability (HA) requirements
Objective 1.3 – Describe storage types for vSphere
Objective 1.4 – Differentiate between NIOC and SIOC
Objective 1.5 – Manage vCenter inventory efficiently
Objective 1.6 – Describe and differentiate among vSphere, HA, DRS, and SDRS
functionality
Objective 1.7 – Describe and identify resource pools and use cases
Objective 1.8 – Differentiate between VDS and VSS
Objective 1.9 – Describe the purpose of cluster and the features it provides
Objective 1.10 – Describe virtual machine (VM) file structure
Objective 1.11 – Describe vMotion and Storage vMotion technology
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions Objective 2.1 – Describe vSphere integration with other VMware products
Objective 2.2 – Describe HA solutions for vSphere
Objective 2.3 – Describe the options for securing a vSphere environment
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setting Up a VMware vSphere Solution Objective 4.1 – Understand basic log output from vSphere products
Objective 4.2 – Create and configure vSphere objects
Objective. 4.3 – Set up a content library
Objective 4.4 – Set up ESXi hosts
Objective 4.5 – Configure virtual networking
Objective 4.6 – Deploy and configure VMware vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA)
Objective 4.7 – Set up identity sources
Objective 4.8 – Configure an SSO domain
Section 5 – Performance-tuning and Optimizing a VMware vSphere Solution Objective 5.1 – Determine effective snapshot use cases
Objective 5.2 – Monitor resources of VCSA in a vSphere environment
Objective 5.3 – Identify impacts of VM configurations
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks in a VMware vSphere Solution Objective 7.1 – Manage virtual networking
Objective 7.2 – Manage datastores
Objective 7.3 – Configure a storage policy
Objective 7.4 – Configure host security
Objective 7.5 – Configure role-based user management
Objective 7.6 – Configure and use vSphere Compute and Storage cluster options
Objective 7.7 – Perform different types of migrations
Objective 7.8 – Manage resources of a vSphere environment
Objective 7.9 – Create and manage VMs using different methods
Objective 7.10 – Create and manage templates
Objective 7.11 – Manage different VMware vCenter Server objects
Objective 7.12 – Setup permissions on datastores, clusters, vCenter, and hosts
Objective 7.13 – Identify and interpret affinity/anti affinity rules
Objective 7.14 – Understand use cases for alarms
Objective 7.15 – Utilize VMware vSphere Update Manager (VUM)
Objective 7.16 - Configure and manage host profiles
QUESTION 1
Using vSphere HA Orchestrated Restart an administrator places the most mission
critical VM in the highest
priority. After a host failure, the highest priority VM fails to restart while
VMs in high priority restart.
What would cause this to occur?
A. VMware Tools is not installed.
B. Proactive HA is disabled.
C. There are insufficient cluster resources.
D. Performance degradation VMs tolerate threshold is at default.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two VMware solutions track and analyze the operation of multiple data
sources? (Choose two.)
A. vRealize Automation
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Life Cycle Manager
D. vRealize Log Insight
E. vRealize Orchestrator
QUESTION 3
What is required to convert a VM to a template?
A. Reregister the template.
B. Choose a thin-provisioned format.
C. Select a storage policy.
D. Power off the virtual machine.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc%
2FGUID-846238E4-A1E3-4A28-B230-33BDD1D57454.html
QUESTION 4
A cluster of vSphere 6.5 and 6.7 hosts all have identical hardware. VMs are
created on the 6.7 hosts with
virtual hardware version 14. During routine maintenance on the 6.7 hosts, the
VMs are unable to migrate to the
6.5 hosts.
Why are the VMs unable to migrate to the 6.5 hosts?
A. VMware Tools version is upgraded.
B. EVC mode is disabled.
C. DPM is configured incorrectly.
D. The virtual hardware version is incompatible with 6.5.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
An administrator is elevating the security posture of a vSphere environment
after a recent data breach. All VMs
will be encrypted as part of this plan.
Which additional component is required for the encryption?
A. KMS server.
B. vSAN encryption.
C. two-factor authentication
D. encrypted vSphere vMotion
Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR 300-901)
Exam Description Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs v1.0 (DEVCOR
300-901) is a 120-minute exam associated with the DevNet Professional
Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of software development
and design including using APIs, Cisco platforms, application deployment and
security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, Developing Applications
using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.0 Software Development and Design 20% 1.1 Describe distributed applications related to the concepts of front-end,
back-end, and load balancing
1.2 Evaluate an application design considering scalability and modularity
1.3 Evaluate an application design considering high-availability and resiliency
(including on-premises, hybrid, and cloud)
1.4 Evaluate an application design considering latency and rate limiting
1.5 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering
maintainability
1.6 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering observability
1.7 Diagnose problems with an application given logs related to an event
1.8 Evaluate choice of database types with respect to application requirements
(such as relational, document, graph, columnar, and Time Series)
1.9 Explain architectural patterns (monolithic, services oriented, microservices,
and event driven)
1.10 Utilize advanced version control operations with Git
1.10.a Merge a branch
1.10.b Resolve conflicts
1.10.c git reset
1.10.d git checkout
1.10.e git revert
1.11 Explain the concepts of release packaging and dependency management
1.12 Construct a sequence diagram that includes API calls
2.0 Using APIs 20% 2.1 Implement robust REST API error handling for time outs and rate limits
2.2 Implement control flow of consumer code for unrecoverable REST API errors
2.3 Identify ways to optimize API usage through HTTP cache controls
2.4 Construct an application that consumes a REST API that supports pagination
2.5 Describe the steps in the OAuth2 three-legged authorization code grant flow
3.0 Cisco Platforms 20% 3.1 Construct API requests to implement chatops with Webex Teams API
3.2 Construct API requests to create and delete objects using Firepower device
management (FDM)
3.3 Construct API requests using the Meraki platform to accomplish these tasks
3.3.a Use Meraki Dashboard APIs to enable an SSID
3.3.b Use Meraki location APIs to retrieve location data
3.4 Construct API calls to retrieve data from Intersight
3.5 Construct a Python script using the UCS APIs to provision a new UCS server
given a template
3.6 Construct a Python script using the Cisco DNA center APIs to retrieve and
display wireless health information
3.7 Describe the capabilities of AppDynamics when instrumenting an application
3.8 Describe steps to build a custom dashboard to present data collected from
Cisco APIs
4.0 Application Deployment and Security 20% 4.1 Diagnose a CI/CD pipeline failure (such as missing dependency,
incompatible versions of components, and failed tests)
4.2 Integrate an application into a prebuilt CD environment leveraging Docker
and Kubernetes
4.3 Describe the benefits of continuous testing and static code analysis in a CI
pipeline
4.4 Utilize Docker to containerize an application
4.5 Describe the tenets of the "12-factor app"
4.6 Describe an effective logging strategy for an application
4.7 Explain data privacy concerns related to storage and transmission of data
4.8 Identify the secret storage approach relevant to a given scenario
4.9 Configure application specific SSL certificates
4.10 Implement mitigation strategies for OWASP threats (such as XSS, CSRF, and
SQL injection)
4.11 Describe how end-to-end encryption principles apply to APIs
5.0 Infrastructure and Automation 20% 5.1 Explain considerations of model-driven telemetry (including data
consumption and data storage)
5.2 Utilize RESTCONF to configure a network device including interfaces, static
routes, and VLANs (IOS XE only)
5.3 Construct a workflow to configure network parameters with:
5.3.a Ansible playbook
5.3.b Puppet manifest
5.4 Identify a configuration management solution to achieve technical and
business requirements
5.5 Describe how to host an application on a network device (including Catalyst
9000 and Cisco IOx-enabled devices) Click here to
view complete Q&A of 300-901 exam
Certkingdom Review,
Certkingdom PDF Torrents Best Cisco 300-901
Certification, Cisco
300-901 Training at certkingdom.com
QUESTION: 1
A data architect adds a field to an existing data model that contains new values for the ProductGroup.
The business analyst needs to efficiently update the app and meet these requirements:
• Use the existing charts, which are built using a master item dimension called ProductGroup
• Existing charts must use the new values for ProductGroup
• Business users must be able to compare the new and old values
How should the business analyst meet these requirements?
A. Change the ProductGroup dimension using the new field, and create a new dimension in the
master items for the old field
B. Create a calculated dimension on the charts to allow the users to compare the new value to the
old value
C. Replace the dimensions on all charts to use the new ProductGroup field added to the data model
D. Use set analysis on the chart measures to see the difference in ProductGroup between the new
field and the old field
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
A business analyst must create new master items for quarterly calendar measures with companyspecific
naming conventions based on
• The Date field and the Sum of Sales
• The new master items will calculate QTD Sales. Current QTD Sales, Last QTD Sales, Current Quarter
Sales, Last Year Current Quarter Sales, and Last Quarter Sales
Which three steps should the business analyst take to meet these requirements? (Select three.)
A. Right-click the Date field in the assets panel and select Create calendar measures
B. Right-click the Sales field in the assets panel and select Create calendar measures
C. Select Date, Sales, Sum, and Quarterly Save to master items, rename master items
D. Select Date. Sales. Sum. and Yearly
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION: 3
A business analyst is building a dashboard to track customer loyalty. The app has several
requirements
• A table that shows the total number of purchases by customer
• A scatter plot that shows the correlation between the number of purchases and total spent by
customer
• A bar chart that shows the top five customers by sales
Which two measures should the business analyst use to meet these requirements? (Select two.)
A. Customer Ranking
B. Number of Purchases
C. Purchase Amount
D. Number of Products
E. Correlation
Answer: B,C
QUESTION: 4
A client wants to see a bar chart with a single measure and three dimensions Region. Product
Category, and Month
The business analyst creates a tar chart with the measure. Sum(Revenue).
Which final step should the business analyst take to complete the chart?
A. Add Region, Product Category, and Month as three different dimensions
B. Create a single master dimension with Region, Product Category, and Month
C. Add Region as a dimension, add Product Category and Month as alternate dimensions
D. Create a cyclic group with Region, Product Category, and Month as dimensions
Implement and test the production control module identify components of unified manufacturing
validate the interconnectivity between General ledger and the Production control
modules
implement parameters, production orders, and life cycle
implement and manage subcontractors
configure and manage costing sheets
implement and manage work calendars
configure inventory dimensions in production
implement and manage resources
create and manage operations and routes
Configure and manage a product configuration model build a product configuration model
create and manage products
configure and manage constraints
describe the purpose and capabilities of the product configuration models
Create and manage production and lean orders (25-30%)
Create common components of production and lean orders create and configure catch weight items
create production flows
create and manage Kanbans
create and manage formulas
create and process batch, production, and lean orders
set up and maintain commodity pricing
apply product compliance standards
identify items and substitute items within a bill of material (BOM) or formula
Manage scheduling and subcontracting perform processes to manage scrap and waste of a discrete order
implement production scheduling and subcontracting
implement activity-based subcontracting
create and maintain project items and item tasks
Create, process, and manage production batch orders (40-45%)
Perform production batch order lifecycle process production batch orders
implement containerized packaging
implement and configure rebates
implement lot and batch control processes
create planned production batch orders by using the Master planning module
perform processes to manage scrap and waste of a batch order
perform a batch rework
configure batch reservations and expiration dates
identify and configure batch attributes for processes
integrate manufacturing processes with warehouse management system (WMS)
Manage and maintain formulas
create and manage co-products and by-products
create and manage planning items
create and manage formulas with scalable and percentage-based calculations
create and manage formulas with co-products, by-products, and planning items
The American Software Testing Qualifications Board (ASTQB) has signed an
agreement with BCS, The Chartered Institute for IT for BCS to be an exam
provider for the ASTQB Certified Mobile Tester certification.
The mobile certification was created by ASTQB in 2015 for software testers
working with mobile devices and mobile apps. ASTQB Certified Mobile Tester
certification was created by a group of leading international experts using the
latest mobile testing standards.
Debbie Friedenberg, ASTQB President, remarked, “It is great to be working with
BCS, The Chartered Institute for IT, to deliver our certification. The volume of
mobile development has grown so fast that mobile is now the most-used digital
platform. Specific testing skills are integral to successful mobile testing and
this certification provides an ideal platform of knowledge and skills for
software testers working in this area.”
QUESTION: 1
What types of testing are particularly important for mobile applications based on the user’s
expectations?
A. Suitability and Accuracy
B. Usability and Performance
C. Portability and Usability
D. Performance and Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
While all of these are important, the user has particularly high expectations for the usability and
performance of a mobile application.
QUESTION: 2
If an application resides on the mobile device and was written specifically for that device, what type
of application is it?
A. Web-based
B. Hybrid
C. Native
D. Device-specific
Answer: C
Explanation:
An application that resides on the mobile device rather than on a web server and is written to work
with a specific device is a native application.
QUESTION: 3
You are testing an application for a smart phone. You have determined that you only need to test one
device from the target family of devices because the behavior of all devices in that family will be the
same for this application.
This is an example of what test design technique?
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Combinatorial
C. Decision tables
D. Equivalence Partitioning
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is an example of EP where all the members of the class are expected to behave in the same
manner, therefore only one member of the class needs to be tested. Combinatorial technique is not
the correct answer because that would be looking to reduce the set of test devices based on creating
combinations to test.
QUESTION: 4
If you are testing a mobile application that is not safety-critical, which life cycle model is most likely
to be used?
Create and manage products
create a product and product variants
create Bill of materials (BOMs)
identify the purpose and capabilities of the Product Configuration models
create and configure category hierarchies
create product attributes
Configure products for Supply Chain management
create and manage inventory dimensions
create Item groups and Item model groups
create and print product labels
create and assign bar codes
configure Item coverage
configure product compliance processes
Implement Inventory management (20-25%)
Configure inventory management
identify the purpose of inventory forecasting
set up inventory and warehouse parameters
configure and perform Quality control and Quality management processes
configure inventory valuation reports
configure ABC classification
configure inventory closing components
implement inventory breakdowns
Manage and process inventory activities
create and process inventory and warehouse journals
create and process transfer orders
create and process chain orders
manage direct delivery orders
process quarantine orders
process quality orders
perform inventory closing and adjustments
apply inventory blocking
Implement and manage Supply Chain processes (25-30%)
Implement Procurement and sourcing
create and manage purchase requisitions, requests for quotes (RFQs), and
purchase orders (POs)
create and manage catalogs
configure purchase order change management
configure and apply Vendor rebates
implement and manage consignment inventory
configure and test Vendor collaboration portal
manage over and under deliveries and delivery schedules
Implement common Sales and marketing features configure quotations, sales orders, and return orders
configure sales groups and commissions
configure and manage up-sell, cross-sell, discounts, and price groups
configure customer and prospect searches
implement and manage leads and prospects
configure inter-company Trade relations
Implement advanced sales and marketing features configure brokers and royalties
configure trade allowances and customer rebates
implement and process foreign trade
configure and process Vendor 1099
Implement Warehouse management and Transportation management and perform
business processes (25-30%)
Configure Warehouse management
implement components for warehouse management
implement directives
implement inventory statuses
implement waves
implement loads
implement shipments
implement works
implement mobile devices
Perform warehouse management processes
identify inventory movement processes
perform cycle counting
use mobile devices for inbound and outbound processes
implement containerization and packaging
process inbound orders
process outbound orders
perform cluster picking
process shipments
identify and apply the replenishment process
Implement transportation management and perform business processes configure container management
configure and manage transportation management
perform planning and executing of loads and shipments
configure and generate freight bills and invoices
identify and configure route and rate engines
configure and use dock appointment scheduling
perform transportation processes by using the load planning workbench
Become a CSSLP – Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Earning the globally recognized CSSLP secure software development
certification is a proven way to build your career and better incorporate
security practices into each phase of the software development lifecycle (SDLC).
CSSLP certification recognizes leading application security skills. It shows
employers and peers you have the advanced technical skills and knowledge
necessary for authentication, authorization and auditing throughout the SDLC
using best practices, policies and procedures established by the cybersecurity
experts at (ISC)².
Prove your skills, advance your career, and gain support from a community of
cybersecurity leaders here to help you throughout your professional journey.
Who Earns the CSSLP? The CSSLP is ideal for software development and security professionals
responsible for applying best practices to each phase of the SDLC – from
software design and implementation to testing and deployment – including those
in the following positions:
What will You Need to Know to Pass the CSSLP Exam? The CSSLP exam evaluates your expertise across eight security domains. Think
of the domains as topics you need to master based on your professional
experience and education.
For a complete list of acronyms and terms you may encounter during your (ISC)²
exam, reference the translated (ISC)² Certification Acronym and (ISC)²
Certification Terms glossaries.
Register for Your CSSLP Exam
Don’t wait. If you’re ready to pursue the CSSLP secure software development
certification, commit yourself now by registering for the exam.
Schedule your exam by creating an account with Pearson VUE, the leading provider
of global, computer-based testing for certification and licensure exams. You can
find details on testing locations, policies, accommodations and more on their
website.
Register Now
Get CSSLP Training that's Right for You With instructor-led online and classroom courses, (ISC)² has a training
option to fit your schedule and learning style. Trainings, seminars, courseware
and self-study aids directly from (ISC)² or one of our many Official Training
Providers help you get ready for the rigorous CSSLP exam by reviewing relevant
domains and topics. Visit the (ISC)² Training Finder to register for the course
that best meets your needs, including:
What will You Need to Know to Pass the CSSLP Exam?
The CSSLP exam evaluates your expertise across eight security domains. Think of
the domains as topics you need to master based on your professional experience
and education.
Download the CSSLP Exam Outline for a deeper dive into the CSSLP domains.
For a complete list of acronyms and terms you may encounter during your (ISC)²
exam, reference the translated (ISC)² Certification Acronym and (ISC)²
Certification Terms glossaries.
Register for Your CSSLP Exam
Don’t wait. If you’re ready to pursue the CSSLP secure software development
certification, commit yourself now by registering for the exam.
Schedule your exam by creating an account with Pearson VUE, the leading provider
of global, computer-based testing for certification and licensure exams. You can
find details on testing locations, policies, accommodations and more on their
website.
Register Now
Get CSSLP Training that's Right for You
With instructor-led online and classroom courses, (ISC)² has a training option
to fit your schedule and learning style. Trainings, seminars, courseware and
self-study aids directly from (ISC)² or one of our many Official Training
Providers help you get ready for the rigorous CSSLP exam by reviewing relevant
domains and topics. Visit the (ISC)² Training Finder to register for the course
that best meets your needs, including:
Join A Global Community Of Cybersecurity Leaders Once you are certified and become an (ISC)² member, you’re a part of a
global community of more than 140,000 certified cybersecurity professionals
focused on inspiring a safe and secure cyber world. In addition to that
extensive network, a wealth of continuing education opportunities help you keep
your skills sharp, informed of the latest trends and best practices, and ensures
your expertise remains relevant throughout your career. Learn more about (ISC)²
member benefits.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an
exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A
Explanation: The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange
and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about these modems can
then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a
protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets that are later
decoded to collect information such
as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer: D is
incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is
used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or
otherwise improperly disposed-of
reports. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most
commonly used technique of all,
getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D
Explanation: Designated Approving Authority (DAA) is also known as the accreditor. Answer: A is
incorrect. The data owner (information owner) is usually a member of management, in charge of a
specific business unit, and is ultimately responsible for the protection and use of a specific subset
of information. Answer: B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk
Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a
corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of
significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are
commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related.
CRO's are accountable to the Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to
balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for
coordinating the organization's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) approach. Answer: C is
incorrect. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for the information
technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the role of a
leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial officer. In
military organizations, they report to the commanding officer.
QUESTION 6
DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high
integrity and medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D
Explanation: The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high
availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium
availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.
QUESTION 7
Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code
review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics
increase the application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F
Explanation: Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics
for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews": Old code:
Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of
vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high
quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs
by default increases the application's attack surface.
Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated
privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application's attack surface. Anonymously
accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and
administrators can access, and it increases the application's attack surface. Code listening on a
globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and
increases the application's attack surface. Code written in C/C++/assembly language: It is prone to
security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities:
It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them.
Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from
unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult
to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has
more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed
to any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation: The confidentiality service of a cryptographic system ensures that information will
not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network.
QUESTION 9
What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance
Acquisition process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: The various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance
Acquisition process are as follows: Determine software product or service requirements. Identify
associated risks. Develop software requirements. Create acquisition strategy. Develop evaluation
criteria and evaluation plan. Define development and use of SwA due diligence questionnaires.
Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed in the monitoring and acceptance phase of the
Software Assurance acquisition process. Click here to
view complete Q&A of CSSLP exam
Certkingdom Review,
Certkingdom PDF Torrents
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational
knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365, Power Platform applications, and the cloud
computing model. This exam will cover the considerations and benefits of
adopting Dynamics 365, the Power Platform, and cloud services in general. This
exam can be taken as a precursor to Dynamics 365 certifications and training.
Candidates for this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects. Less
Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)
Understand apps for customer engagement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Project Service Automation
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
Understand apps for unified operations Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Business Central
Understand power platform Common Data Service (CDS)
Common Data Model (CDM)
PowerApps
Flow
Understand application basics infrastructure stack
solutions basics
business applications terminology
scenarios of business applications in action
Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)
Understand cloud architecture cloud computing overview
Microsoft Azure
and utilize cloud-based apps
Compare different types of cloud services available Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
and hybrid, public, private, or government
Compare cloud offerings with corresponding on-premises offerings when to use on-premises vs. cloud
explore the stack
examine cost options
Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)
Compare different types of deployments application life cycle
online deployment
and on-premises deployment
Compare different types of releases private preview
public preview
general availability
and hybrid, public, private, or government
Understand role-based security model
security model
manage security
determine roles
implement role based security
and manage teams
Understand GDPR
describe GDPR and understand how Microsoft Dynamics 365 addresses and supports
GDPR
Understand licensing, onboarding, and support (15-20%)
Understand licensing options licensing types
and choosing the right licensing options
Describe setup and support options trials
FastTrack
support offerings
and training offerings Question: 1
You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help
your organization efficiently track, manage, and deliver project-based services.
Which application should you select?
A. Customer Service
B. Field Service
C. Project Service automation
D. Sales
Answer: B Question: 2 You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps.
You need to create solution components using customization tools.
Which two components can be included in a solution? Each correct answer presents
a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. audit logs
B. sitemap
C. team
D. business unit
E. global option sets
Answer: A,E Question: 3 You are a system administrator for an organization that has Dynamics 365 for
Sales and Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.
A user who logs in to the Microsoft 365 portal sees only Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to enable the user to see Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. In Dynamics 365 model driven apps, enable the features.
B. In PowerApps, create the application.
C. Type the URL of the web application for Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.
D. Assign the correct security role to the user's ID
E. Add the correct licensing to the user ID in Active Directory.
QUESTION: 1
When designing a WLAN to support voice in a large office, which design element is of the highest
concern for performance?
A. Frequency Selection
B. Roaming
C. AP vendor
D. Band steering
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
What is the minimum PoE budget needed on a switch to support 6 (six) APs that can only be
powered using IEEE 802.3at if no other details are provided?
A. 320 W
B. 60 W
C. 180 W
D. 240 W
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
In high-density environments, such as stadiums and convention centers, what extra factor has to be
taken into account that can attenuate Wi-Fi signals when these environments are having an event?
A. Thick walls
B. I-Beams
C. People
D. Fire doors
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4
What document is typically created to launch a project?
A. Bill of Materials
B. Project Charter
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Budget
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
Your new customer is concerned about maintaining privacy for their proprietary information when
you conduct information gathering for their WLAN design. Which document can you use to directly
address their concern?
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Initial Setup
Set up Enterprise and Industry
Manage Roles, Visibility, and Security
Plan for Access Control
Manage Personalization and Internationalization
Set up Organizations and Users
Define and enable Geographies
(UPDATED FOR 18B) Set up Mobile and Email Integration
Lead Management Describe the Leads Lifecycle
Configure Lead Conversion
Configure Sales Leads
Forecasting
Describe Forecasting Options
Set up Lookups, Profile Options, and Configuration Activities
Run Forecast Processes
Sales Performance Manage Quota Formulas and Plans
Describe the capabilities of Sales Analytics
Define access points for reports
Define Extensions for Sales Describe the Oracle Recommended guidelines for working in sandboxes
Describe the Tools used to extend and modify the application
Extend Custom Fields and Pages
Use Scripting and Web Services
Use recommended configuration practices to maximize performance
Customer Management
Manage Accounts and Contacts
Enable Customer Data Management
Manage Activities
Set up Sales Predictor and Recommendations
Opportunity Management Describe Sales Methods
Track Partner Contacts in Opportunities
Configure Opportunity Management
Manage References and Competitors
Set up Products and Sales Catalogs
Territory Management and Assignment Rules Plan for Territory Assignment
Manage Synchronization and Schedulable Processes
Explain Configuration Activities
Manage Sales Territories
Set up an Assignment Manager
Migrate Configurations to Production
Plan for Production configuration
Migrate Data
Migrate Configurations
Cloud Implementations Describe Cloud instance management, including Updates, Upgrades, and
Environment Refreshes
Describe Service Entitlements
Set up auditing policy
Describe a testing strategy, a go-live, and a process handoff
Question: 1 Which statement is correct with regards to leads and opportunities?
A. Once a lead is converted to an opportunity, you can manually add multiple
opportunities to it.
B. Lead to opportunity is a one-to-one relation, hence you cannot have one lead
assigned to multiple opportunities.
C. You can have multiple leads associated with a single opportunity but not a
single lead associated with multiple opportunities.
D. Once a lead is converted to an opportunity, you cannot associate another
opportunity with it.
Answer: A
Question: 2 Which three options are mandatory procedures to consider in migration
planning? (Choose three.)
A. Lock all the configuration data in the test environment.
B. Review all the customizations and configuration performed in the test
environment.
C. Define which data should be migrated from the test environment.
D. Check if there are no configuration records at all in the production
environment.
E. Verify if both environments are in the same release and patch bundle.
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 3 Identify two criteria that must be met for salespeople to submit their
forecasts. (Choose two.)
A. forecast past forecast due date
B. territory freeze date past forecast due date
C. forecast before forecast due date
D. forecast before territory freeze date
E. forecast past territory freeze date
Answer: A, B
Question: 4 Your customer has thousands of products and would like to migrate from his
legacy system to Oracle Sales Cloud.
Which statement is true regarding Importing Product Groups?
A. The import procedures are covered in the topic, Importing Product Groups.
B. You’ll create only the root group in the UI and import the rest.
C. You’ll create all of the subgroups (under the root group) manually in the UI.
D. You can directly import an entire product group along with a root group.
Course Content Course Introduction：
Introduce the following contents of Huawei IP Products:Product
Highlights,Competitive Analysis,Case Studies and Quotations.
Target Audience Those who are engaged in selling Huawei Enterprise IP network products,
including: Switches, WLAN, Routers, Security etc.
Prerequisites • With the basic knowledge of data communication
• Familiar with the TCP / IP basic principles and common Ethernet technologies
• Familiar with common network devices of data communication
• Familiar with Huawei Enterprise IP network products, including: Switches, WLAN,
Routers, Security etc.
Objectives On completion of this course the participants will be able to know about :
• Huawei Enterprise IP Product Family
• Huawei Enterprise Network Solution
• Competitive Analysis
• Quotations
Question: 1 Which of the below is not the high-reliability technology?
A. VPN FRR
B. E-Trunk
C. IP/LDP FRR
D. IBGP
Answer: D
Question: 2 Which are main differences between CE12800S and CE12800?() (Multiple Choice)
A. demension size
B. the number of switching fabric
C. no orthogonal architecture
D. new line card only for CE128S
Answer: AB
Question: 3 Which models does S12700 compete against overseas? (Multiple Choice)
A. Cisco 3850
B. Cisco 6800
C. Cisco 4500X
D. Cisco N9000
E. HP 10500
Answer: BE
Question: 4 How much switching fabric slots that NE40E-X8 could support?
Number of questions: 69
Number of questions to pass: 47
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam consists of 5 sections described below.
Planning Determine customer's needs/requirements
Determine scope and size of environment
Review IBM Spectrum Protect Plus guides and blueprints
Determine storage requirements: sizing; backup target sizing; resources for
Network with focus on IPs and bandwidth; replication aspects
Determine the requirements for VSNAP and VADP server sizing
Determine the vSnap server replication requirements
Determine IBM Spectrum Protect and IBM Spectrum Protect for VE requirements
Determine firewall ports that must be opened for IBM Spectrum Protect Plus
Define service level agreements (RTO & RPO)
Define users and user credentials for self-service management
Describe REST API availability-Use this REST API to connect applications to
product
Installation Download software (free trial; proper entitlement)
Deploy software using VMWare
Deploy software using Hyper-V.
Assign static IP to virtual machine used for IBM Spectrum Protect Plus using
nmtui
Test the server connectivity
Configuration Configure vSnap server(s)
Configure VADP Backup Proxy Server
Configure and provide credentials for hypervisor
Configure licensing
Define Sites
Register SMTP providers or LDAP providers in the IBM Spectrum Protect Plus
system
Configure vSnap server replication
Set up Role-based access control (RBAC)
Configure backup offloading to IBM Spectrum Protect
Define/configure backup policy service level agreements
Configure Pre- and Post-job scripting
Configure inventory jobs
Configure catalog backup schedules
Configure file indexing
Configure application consistent backups
Connect IBM Spectrum Protect Plus on the IBM Cloud
Configure and Perform test, clone, and production recovery jobs
Administration Upgrade/patch the IBM Spectrum Protect Plus server (apply fixes)
Upgrade/patch the vSnap Server
Upgrade/patch the VADP proxy server
Stop and start servers
Monitor jobs
Manage Jobs (Start, Stop, Hold)
Manage users and credentials
Perform a file level restore
Run Maintenance jobs
Customize and run reports
Verify Capacity licensing compliance
Troubleshooting
Use logs for troubleshooting (backup, job monitoring, collect logs for support)
Troubleshoot Job Failed
Troubleshoot security/credential failures (access failures)
Troubleshoot vSnap storage issues
Troubleshoot network/port failures (DNS)
The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and
format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on
the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam.
This should not be considered an assessment tool.
Use the study guide to help pass this exam. A study guide is an easy to follow
document that will help you prepare for this exam. The guide is free and can be
downloaded immediately.
This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A1000-019 Assessment: IBM Spectrum
Protect Plus V10.1.1 Implementation
Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the
ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.
This assessment exam is available in: English
Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help
you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.
You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report,
showing you how you did in each section.
Self-Paced Virtual Classroom
IBM Spectrum Protect Plus 10.1.1 Quick Start
In this course you learn the basics of how to deploy, configure, and manage IBM
Spectrum Protect Plus, a simplified data recovery and access solution for
virtual environments and applications. IBM Spectrum Protect Plus provides
preconfigured data protection policies that allow you to quickly deploy the
product and begin protecting your data the same day.
Web Resource
IBM Spectrum Protect Plus IBM® Spectrum Protect™ Plus is a data protection and availability solution
for virtual environments that can be deployed in minutes and protect your
environment within an hour. This technical deep dive goes into detail on the
architecture, system requirements, users and permissions, Service Level
Agreements, backup options, restore options, file meta-data indexing, file level
restores, reporting maintenance and offload to Spectrum Protect server.
IBM Spectrum Protect Plus documentation IBM Spectrum Protect™ Plus is a solution for data protection and data access
focused on virtual environments. IBM Spectrum Protect Plus includes Virtual
Machine backup and recovery with secure, self-service, end-user facing portals
for management and monitoring. The product provides an enterprise-wide view of
IT objects and files, so you can discover, use, copy, search, and report on
data, to gain a greater understanding of your organization.
IBM Spectrum Protect Plus End to End Preview IBM announced the brand new IBM Spectrum Protect Plus solution for VM and
file data protection and availability. In this video we provide a beta version
preview of the the end to end product.
Question: 1
What will cause a report name to be invalid when creating a custom report?
A. if there is an underscore in the name
B. if there is a dollar sign $ in the name
C. if there are less than 8 characters in the name
D. if there is a space in the name
Answer: D
Question: 2 Where is guidance on the appropriate disk technologies and RAID protection
levels for the IBM Spectrum Protect Plus vSnap server?
A. the IBM Spectrum Spectrum Protect Plus – All Requirements Doc
B. the Disk Magic and Capacity Magic tools
C. the IBM Spectrum Protect Plus Blueprint
D. the IBM Spectrum Protect Plus Performance Tuning Guide
Answer: A
Question: 3 What will cause a file restore to a Windows VM to fail?
A. The IBM Spectrum Protect Plus Service is not set to Act as part of the
operating system in the guest.
B. iSCSI service is not started in the guest.
C. A user is logged into the desktop of the guest and the file is being restored
to that desktop.
D. The IBM Spectrum Protect Plus File Restore Enabler is not installed in the
guest.
Answer: D
Question: 4 Which two options describe how the retention of backup data may be defined
in an IBM Spectrum
Protect Plus SLA policy? (Choose two.)
A. the number of active versions of each backup to be kept
B. the number of days the last backup is retained in offloaded IBM Spectrum
Protect storage
C. the number of backups to be kept
D. the number of days the last backup of a virtual machine is kept when the
virtual machine has been deleted
E. the number of days backups are to be kept
1.HCS-Field-Server-ENU Huawei Certified Field Specialist-Server Certification
Exam
This article introduces the Huawei H20-651-ENU HCS-Field-Server-ENU exam
outline, other exam outline can be obtained in related training materials or
Huawei Online Learning Website:
https://certkingdom.com/Huawei .
Certification Exam Code Exam Title Duration Pass Score/ Total Score HCS-Field-Server
H20-651-ENU HCS-Field-Server-ENU
(Huawei Certified Field Specialist-Server-ENU) 90 min 600/1000
2. H20-651-ENU HCS-Field-Server-ENU Exam Outline
2.1 Exam Content The HCS-Field-Server exam covers the basic knowledge of server, Huawei
series products of servers, Huawei server tools, configurations, operations,
maintenance and troubleshooting of servers.
2.2 Knowledge points Server Foundation
Basic Concept of Server
Key Server Components
Technologies for Interworking Between Servers and Networks
Product knowledge on Huawei Server
Huawei RH Series Rack Servers
Huawei X Series High-Density Server
Huawei Server Management System introduction-iMana
Huawei Server Management System introduction-iBMC
Huawei Server Tools
Hardware Installation and Cable Connection of Huawei Servers
Checking Before Installation
Hardware Installation
Cable Connection
Server Power-on
Huawei Server Configuration and Deployment
Common Tasks of BISO Setting
RAID Configuration
OS Installation
E9000 Blade Server Product Technology
E9000 Server Introduction
E9000 Server Hardware Installation
E9000 Server Management and Configuration
E9000 Stateless Computing Introduction
Routine Maintenance and Troubleshooting for Huawei Servers
Routine Maintenance for Servers
Server Troubleshooting
Note:
The content mentioned in this article is just a general exam guide; the exam may
also contain more related content that is not mentioned here.
