Exam ID HPE0-V13 - Designing HPE Software-Defined Infrastructure Solutions,
Rev. 19.41
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 15 minutes
Exam length 50 questions
Passing score 63%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta
test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.
Exam description This exam tests the candidate's ability to display competency in the area of
software defined infrastructure (SDI), including designing HPE Software Defined
Infrastructure solutions, and the candidate's ability to analyze workloads and
prescribe the appropriate infrastructure platform, including compute, storage,
and networking.
Ideal candidate for this exam
This certification is targeted to solution architects who have experience
designing and implementing a complex solution and want to validate their skills
to leverage HPE solutions in multi-site environments. Candidates typically
define business needs, propose, and may deploy the solution.
Exam contents This exam has 50 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:
Discrete Option Multiple Choice
Advice to help you take this exam Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
What to Expect with Discrete Option Multiple Choice (DOMC) exams:
This exam uses the DOMC question format. It is quite different than traditional
multiple choice exams. It is designed to increase exam fairness, to protect exam
integrity, your exam scores and your time.
How is DOMC different?
Instead of presenting all the answer options together at one time, DOMC
questions present answer options one at a time, at random
When an answer option is presented, you select either Yes or No to indicate if
the option is correct or not. This process repeats until the question concludes
You may see more than one correct option
You may receive as few as one option for each test question or several options
Once you move forward, you may not go back and change your response to a
previous option
We created an HPE sample test to help you practice using this DOMC test format.
During registration, you will be asked to confirm that you have completed the
HPE DOMC sample test and understand how this exam will perform.
Become acquainted with DOMC:
HPE DOMC sample test
DOMC FAQs
Be sure to complete the supporting resources and review all materials and
documents before you take the exam. Successful completion of the supporting
resources alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
20% Describe Software Defined Infrastructure: Explain the benefits of a software defined infrastructure
Given a set of customer requirements, position software defined solutions to
solve their problem
Position supported software defined solution based on use case
Position supported software defined storage solutions
Position SDN (Software Defined Networking) solutions and their use cases
Describe the HPE Composable Strategy and position HPE value prop for SDI and
SDDC
Describe the customer operational models as it relates to SDI
36% Plan and Design Software Defined Infrastructure Solutions Given a set of customer requirements, determine the appropriate storage
virtualization technology
Given a set of customer requirements, determine the appropriate software defined
platform
Given a set of customer requirements, determine the appropriate software defined
compute technology
Given a set of customer requirements, determine the appropriate software defined
storage
Given a set of customer requirements, determine the appropriate software defined
Networking/composable fabric technology
Given a set of customer requirements, determine the appropriate software defined
orchestration and automation tools
Given a customer requirements, determine the appropriate migration methodology
of workloads to SDI
20% Deploy Software Defined Infrastructure Solutions Deploy composable bare metal workloads on Synergy
Deploy HPE integrations for Hyper-V
Deploy HPE integrations for containers
Deploy a SimpliVity solution, including integration with SCOMM, vCenter
Deploy software defined network
Document the solution
Create baseline reports for infrastructure (firmware and configuration)
Troubleshoot software
12% Defined Infrastructure Solutions Given a scenario, diagnose and troubleshoot the issue, using the appropriate
tools and/or process
Given a scenario, identify the steps to remediation
Given a scenario, create an action plan
Given a scenario, remediate based on an action plan
12% Manage, Monitor, and Maintain Software Defined Infrastructure Solutions Given a scenario, manage, monitor, and maintain the solution using the
appropriate tool
Create baseline reports for infrastructure (firmware and configuration)
Use appropriate HPE update mechanism (Support Pack for ProLiant (SPP),
SimpliVity Upgrade Manager, etc.)
Apply OEM-specific patches per vendor recommendations
Demonstrate maintenance of baselines over solution lifecycle
IISFA II0-001 Certified Information Forensics Investigator (CIFI)
The Certified Information Forensics Investigator, (CIFI) Certification is a
designation earned exclusively by the most qualified information forensic
professionals in the field. Along with adherence to the highest standards of
ethical conduct, the CIFI epitomizes the highest standards in knowledge
requirements and expertise. The CIFI encompasses multiple domains of knowledge,
practical experience, and a demonstration of expertise and understanding
accomplished through a rigorous exam proctored under the most controlled of
environments. Unlike many vendor certifications, the CIFI maintains vendor
neutrality and is independent of dependency requirements such as sponsored
training, purchasing of product, or requirements other than ability. In fact,
candidates may choose to sit for the exam without any restrictions other than
adherence to the IISFA code of ethics and the exam fee. The CIFI is recognized
as the only certification that truly represents the abilities of field
information forensics investigators and is the benchmark by which they are
measured. Earning the CIFI designation is a significant accomplishment and
identifies the best in the profession of information forensics investigator.
The Certified Information Forensics Investigator, (CIFI) Certification is
specifically developed for experienced information forensics investigators who
have practical experience in performing investigation for law enforcement or as
part of a corporate investigations team. The CIFI certification is designed to
demonstrate expertise in all aspects of the information investigative process
and is dedicated to bringing a level of consistency to the profession than can
be recognized outside the field.
CIFI Impacts Your Career and Your Organization Enterprises demand Forensics Investigator that possess the knowledge and
expertise to help them identify critical issues and customize practices to
support trust in and value from information systems.The skills and practices
that CIFI promotes and evaluates are the building blocks of success in the
field. Possessing the CIFI demonstrates proficiency and is the basis for
measurement in the profession.
CIFI Certification: Confirms your knowledge and experience
Quantifies and markets your expertise
Demonstrates that you have gained and maintained the level of knowledge required
to meet the dynamic challenges of a modern enterpriseIs
Is globally recognized as the mark of excellence for the Forensics Professional
Combines the achievement of passing a comprehensive exam with recognition of
work and educational experience, providing you with credibility in the
marketplace.
Increases your value to your organization
Gives you a competitive advantage over peers when seeking job growth
Helps you achieve a high professional standard through IISFA's requirements for
continuing education and ethical conduct
QUESTION 1
Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation
and recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be
immediately revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content
on websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A
QUESTION 6 All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
CBAP Eligibility To earn the CBAP designation, candidates must:
Complete a minimum of 7,500 hours of Business Analysis Work experience in the
last 10 years.
Within this experience, a minimum of 900 hours completed in 4 of the 6 BABOK®
Guide Knowledge Areas, for a total of at least 3,600 of the required 7,500
total.
Complete a minimum of 35 hours of Professional Development in the last 4 years.
Provide two references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CBAP Competencies
Is CBAP right for you? The CBAP certification is for:
Individuals with significant experience in business analysis
Individuals with a CCBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
Highlight Your Expertise The Certified Business Analysis Professional™ (CBAP®) offers members of the
BA community a variety of benefits, including:
Demonstrated senior knowledge and professional competence
Marketability, employability and earning potential
Success and path to leadership
CBAP recognizes your expertise in multiple business domains and your ability to
tackle more complex projects, work with stakeholders to define and manage their
business requirements, drive business processes, lead the BA effort, and
identify opportunities to achieve better business results.
The IIBA® Annual Business Analysis Salary Survey reports that the average salary
of respondents with CBAP® certification holders is 13% higher on average in
earnings in comparison to non-certification holders.
QUESTION 1 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the
solution has been implemented in production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs.
Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise analysis tasks?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of
requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked
that you create a model of the
requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the
project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other
mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the
level of formality that is appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few
requirements. Management would still like you to create a method to trace the
few requirements for this project.
What type of matrix would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions
available to an identified problem.
You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best
choice for your organization.
Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated
solutions for your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis,
how are communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on
the frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face
channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal
communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate
Duration: 120 minutes (95 - 105 questions)
Available languages: English
Exam overview This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:
Security concepts
Security monitoring
Host-based analysis
Network intrusion analysis
Security policies and procedures
Exam Description The Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (200-201
CBROPS) exam is a 120-minute assessment that is associated with the Cisco
Certified CyberOps Associate certification. The CBROPS exam tests a candidate’s
knowledge and skills related to security concepts, security monitoring,
host-based analysis, network intrusion analysis, and security policies and
procedures. The course, Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Fundamentals, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Describe the CIA triad
1.2 Compare security deployments
1.2.a Network, endpoint, and application security systems
1.2.b Agentless and agent-based protections
1.2.c Legacy antivirus and antimalware
1.2.d SIEM, SOAR, and log management
1.3 Describe security terms
1.3.a Threat intelligence (TI)
1.3.b Threat hunting
1.3.c Malware analysis
1.3.d Threat actor
1.3.e Run book automation (RBA)
1.3.f Reverse engineering
1.3.g Sliding window anomaly detection
1.3.h Principle of least privilege
1.3.i Zero trust
1.3.j Threat intelligence platform (TIP)
1.5 Describe the principles of the defense-in-depth strategy
1.6 Compare access control models
1.6.a Discretionary access control
1.6.b Mandatory access control
1.6.c Nondiscretionary access control
1.6.d Authentication, authorization, accounting
1.6.e Rule-based access control
1.6.f Time-based access control
1.6.g Role-based access control
4.9 Interpret common artifact elements from an event to identify an alert
4.9.a IP address (source / destination)
4.9.b Client and server port identity
4.9.c Process (file or registry)
4.9.d System (API calls)
4.9.e Hashes
4.9.f URI / URL
5.10 Classify intrusion events into categories as defined by security models,
such as Cyber Kill Chain Model and Diamond Model of Intrusion
5.11 Describe the relationship of SOC metrics to scope analysis (time to detect,
time to contain, time to respond, time to control)
QUESTION 1
Which type of algorithm encrypts data bit by bit?
A. block
B. asymmetric
C. stream
D. symmetric
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is deployed on an endpoint as an agent or standalone
application?
A. NIPS
B. NGFW
C. HIDS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following represents an exploitable, unpatched, and unmitigated
weakness in software?
A. vulnerability
B. exploit
C. threat
D. breach
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following describes a TCP injection attack?
A. Many TCP SYN packets are captures with the same sequence number, source, and
destination IP address, but different payloads.
B. there is an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources
C. many TCP SYN packets are captured with the same sequence number, but
different source and destination IP addresses and different payloads
D. an attacker performs actions slower than normal
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 How are attributes of ownership and control of an object managed in Linux?
The Avaya Converged Platform Support Exam (76940X) is a requirement to earn
the Avaya Solutions Platform (ACSS – 7694) credential. This exam has 56
questions and the minimum passing score is 64%. The candidate has 105 minutes to
complete this exam.
Test Objectives The exam covers the following knowledge areas and learning objectives:
Architecture Describe the Components that make up the ASP 4200 product.
Identify the differences between a Co-delivery and a Full Avaya Support
installation.
Methodology and Support Tools Explain how to use the Avaya support ticketing tool.
Use the appropriate logs, tools, and files to collect a package of information
that will help in troubleshooting.
Describe the next level interfaces used on the OEM components (PDI, Servers,
VMware, EMC, etc.) for troubleshooting.
Maintenance Download and apply Server and Storage updates.
Download and apply PDU and Switch updates.
Download and upgrade VMware vCenter and ESXi platforms.
Identify the correct procedures used in preventative maintenance.
Perform backup and restore of solutions and applications related to ASP 4200.
Troubleshooting Describe general troubleshooting tasks.
Describe Quick Fix tasks.
Identify unsupported configurations in VMware.
Describe how to use PSN and KT documents during troubleshooting tasks.
Prerequisite Knowledge Review the credential learning map for any prerequisite information.
QUESTION 1 A support engineer is tasked with working on an ACP 4200 4.0 system.
Which three pieces of equipment would the engineer expect to find in the rack
that will differentiate the system from an earlier release of PodFx 3.X or CPOD
2.X? (Choose three.)
A. Dell R601 Servers
B. VSP 4824
C. HP Nimble Storage CS1000
D. HP Proliant DL360 G10 Servers
E. VSP 7254
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2 Which equipment is standard in a new ACP 4200 4.0?
A. IP 7254
B. VSP 4850
C. IP 8284
D. VSP 7024
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which benefit does the available G450 Gateway provide to the ACP 4200
solution?
A. IP to H.323 translation
B. SIP to IP transition
C. IP to POTS transition
D. SIP to SIP negotiation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A support engineer is assigned to provide maintenance services for an ACP
4200 4.0 system.
Which type of organization could the engineer expect to be assigned to?
A. Small Business services
B. Service Providers
C. Large Enterprises
D. Large Enterprises & Service Providers
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam should have subject matter expertise implementing,
managing, and monitoring an organization’s Microsoft Azure environment.
Responsibilities for an Azure Administrator include implementing, managing, and
monitoring identity, governance, storage, compute, and virtual networks in a
cloud environment, plus provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources, when
needed.
An Azure Administrator often serves as part of a larger team dedicated to
implementing your organization's cloud infrastructure.
A candidate for this exam should have at least six months of hands-on experience
administering Azure, along with a strong understanding of core Azure services,
Azure workloads, security, and governance. In addition, this role should have
experience using PowerShell, Azure CLI, Azure portal, and Azure Resource Manager
templates.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Manage Azure identities and governance (15-20%) Manage Azure AD objects
. create users and groups
. manage user and group properties
. manage device settings
. perform bulk user updates
. manage guest accounts
. configure Azure AD Join
. configure self-service password reset
. NOT: Azure AD Connect; PIM
Manage role-based access control (RBAC)
. create a custom role
. provide access to Azure resources by assigning roles
o subscriptions
o resource groups
o resources (VM, disk, etc.)
. interpret access assignments
. manage multiple directories
. NOT: Traffic Manager and FrontDoor and PrivateLink
Monitor and troubleshoot virtual networking
. monitor on-premises connectivity
. use Network Performance Monitor
. use Network Watcher
. troubleshoot external networking
. troubleshoot virtual network connectivity
Integrate an on-premises network with an Azure virtual network
. create and configure Azure VPN Gateway
. create and configure VPNs
. configure ExpressRoute
. configure Azure Virtual WAN
Monitor and back up Azure resources (10-15%)
Monitor resources by using Azure Monitor
. configure and interpret metrics
o analyze metrics across subscriptions
. configure Log Analytics
o implement a Log Analytics workspace
o configure diagnostic settings
. query and analyze logs
o create a query
o save a query to the dashboard
o interpret graphs
. set up alerts and actions
o create and test alerts
o create action groups
o view alerts in Azure Monitor
o analyze alerts across subscriptions
. configure Application Insights
. NOT: Network monitoring
Implement backup and recovery
. configure and review backup reports
. perform backup and restore operations by using Azure Backup Service
. create a Recovery Services Vault
o use soft delete to recover Azure VMs
. create and configure backup policy
. perform site-to-site recovery by using Azure Site Recovery
. NOT: SQL or HANA
AZ-103/104 Comparison
Microsoft Azure Administrator
Current Skills Measured as of January 15, 2020
Updated Skills Measured List (ignore the numbering below)
Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that
span storage, security, networking, and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates
have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle, and take
requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make
recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as
provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate.
Candidates for this exam should have proficiency in using PowerShell, the
Command Line Interface, Azure Portal, ARM templates, operating systems,
virtualization, cloud infrastructure, storage structures, and networking.
Audience Profile
The Azure Administrator implements, manages, and monitors identity, governance,
storage, computevirtual machines, and virtual networks in a cloud environment.
This role focuses primarily on enabling Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). The
Azure Administrator will provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as
appropriate.
Candidates should have a minimum of six months of hands-on experience
administering Azure. Candidates should have a strong understanding of core Azure
services, Azure workloads, security, and governance. Candidates for this exam
should have experience in using PowerShell, the Command Line Interface, Azure
Portal, and ARM templates.
1. Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
1.1 Manage Azure subscriptions
Assign administrator permissions; configure cost center quotas and tagging;
configure policies at Azure subscription level
1.2 Analyze resource utilization and consumption
6. Manage Azure Identities and Governance (15-20%)
6.1 Manage Azure AD objects
. create users and groups
. manage user and group properties
. manage device settings
. perform bulk user updates
. manage guest accounts
. configure Azure AD Join
. configure self-service password reset
Configure diagnostic settings on resources; create baseline for resources;
create and test alerts; analyze alerts across subscription; analyze metrics
across subscription; create action groups and action rules; monitor for unused
resources; monitor spend; report on spend; utilize log queries in Azure Monitor;
view alerts in Azure Monitor
1.3 Manage resource groups
Use Azure policies for resource groups; configure resource locks; configure
resource policies; implement and set tagging on resource groups; move resources
across resource groups; remove resource groups
1.4 Managed role based access control (RBAC)
May include but is not limited to: Create a custom role, configure access to
Azure resources by assigning roles, configure management access to Azure,
troubleshoot RBAC, implement RBAC policies, assign RBAC Roles
. NOT: Azure AD Connect; PIM
6.2 Manage role-based access control (RBAC)
. create a custom role
. provide access to Azure resources by assigning roles
o subscriptions
o resource groups
o resources (VM, disk, etc.)
. interpret access assignments
. manage multiple directories
6.3 Manage subscriptions and governance
. configure Azure policies
. configure resource locks
. apply tags
. create and manage resource groups
o move resources
o remove RGs
. manage subscriptions
. configure Cost Management
. configure management groups
2. Implement and manage storage (15-20%)
2.1 Create and configure storage accounts
Configure network access to the storage account; create and configure storage
account; generate shared access signature; install and use Azure Storage
Explorer; manage access keys; monitor activity log by using Monitor Logs;
implement Azure storage replication; Implement Azure AD Authentication, manage
blob storage lifecycle management
7. Implement and Manage Storage (10-15%)
7.1 Manage storage accounts
. configure network access to storage accounts
. create and configure storage accounts
. generate shared access signature
. manage access keys
. implement Azure storage replication
. configure Azure AD Authentication for a storage account
7.2 Manage data in Azure Storage
2.2 Import and export data to Azure
Create export from Azure job; create import into Azure job; configure and use
Azure blob storage; configure Azure content delivery network (CDN) endpoints
2.3 Configure Azure files
Create Azure file share; create Azure File Sync service; create Azure sync
group; troubleshoot Azure File Sync
2.4 Implement Azure backup
Configure and review backup reports; perform backup operation; create Recovery
Services Vault; create and configure backup policy; perform a restore operation
. export from Azure job
. import into Azure job
. install and use Azure Storage Explorer
. copy data by using AZCopy
7.3 Configure Azure files and Azure blob storage
. create an Azure file share
. create and configure Azure File Sync service
. configure Azure blob storage
. configure storage tiers for Azure blobs
3. Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (15-20%)
3.1 Create and configure a VM for Windows and Linux
Configure high availability; configure monitoring, networking, storage, and
virtual machine size; deploy and configure scale sets
3.2 Automate deployment of VMs
Modify Azure Resource Manager (ARM) template; configure location of new VMs;
configure VHD template; deploy from template; save a deployment as an ARM
template; deploy Windows and Linux VMs
3.3 Manage Azure VM
Add data discs; add network interfaces; automate configuration management by
using PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) and VM Agent by using custom
script extensions; manage
8. Deploy and Manage Azure Compute Resources (25-30%)
8.1 Configure VMs for high availability and scalability
. configure high availability
. deploy and configure scale sets
8.2 Automate deployment and configuration of VMs
. modify Azure Resource Manager (ARM) template
. configure VHD template
. deploy from template
. save a deployment as an ARM template
. automate configuration management by using custom script extensions
8.3 Create and configure VMs
. configure Azure Disk Encryption
. move VMs from one resource group to another
VM sizes; move VMs from one resource group to another; redeploy VMs
3.4 Manage VM backups
Configure VM backup; define backup policies; implement backup policies; perform
VM restore; soft delete for Azure VMs; Azure Site Recovery
. manage VM sizes
. add data discs
. configure networking
. redeploy VMs
8.4 Create and configure containers
. create and configure Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS)
. create and configure Azure Container Instances (ACI)
. NOT: selecting an container solution architecture or product; container
registry settings
8.5 Create and configure Web Apps
. create and configure App Service
. create and configure App Service Plans
. NOT: Azure Functions; Logic Apps; Event Grid
4. Configure and manage virtual networks (30-35%)
4.1 Create connectivity between virtual networks
Create and configure VNET peering; create and configure VNET to VNET
connections; verify virtual network connectivity; create virtual network gateway
4.2 Implement and manage virtual networking
Configure private and public IP addresses, network routes, network interface,
subnets, and virtual network
4.3 Configure name resolution
Configure Azure DNS; configure custom DNS settings; configure private and public
9. Configure and Manage Virtual Networking (30-35%)
9.1 Implement and manage virtual networking
. create and configure VNET peering
. configure private and public IP addresses, network routes, network interface,
subnets, and virtual network
9.2 Configure name resolution
. configure Azure DNS
. configure custom DNS settings
. configure a private or public DNS zone
9.3 Secure access to virtual networks
. create security rules
. associate an NSG to a subnet or
DNS zones
4.4 Create and configure a Network Security Group (NSG)
Create security rules; associate NSG to a subnet or network interface; identify
required ports; evaluate effective security rules
4.5 Implement Azure load balancer
May include but is not limited to: Configure internal load balancer, configure
load balancing rules, configure public load balancer, troubleshoot load
balancing
4.6 Monitor and troubleshoot virtual networking
May include but is not limited to: Monitor on-premises connectivity, use Network
resource monitoring, use Network Watcher, troubleshoot external networking,
troubleshoot virtual network connectivity
4.7 Integrate on premises network with Azure virtual network
May include but is not limited to: Create and configure Azure VPN Gateway,
create and configure site to site VPN, configure Express Route, verify on
premises connectivity, troubleshoot on premises connectivity with Azure
network interface
. NOT: Traffic Manager and FrontDoor and PrivateLink
9.5 Monitor and troubleshoot virtual networking
. monitor on-premises connectivity
. use Network resource monitoring
. use Network Watcher
. troubleshoot external networking
. troubleshoot virtual network connectivity
9.6 Integrate an on-premises network with an Azure virtual network
. create and configure Azure VPN Gateway
. create and configure VPNs
. configure ExpressRoute
. configure Azure Virtual WAN
5. Manage identities (15-20%)
5.1 Manage Azure Active Directory (AD)
Add custom domains; Azure AD Join; configure self-service password reset;
[NO EQUIVALENT --- SEE NEW FG 5 BELOW]
manage multiple directories
5.2 Manage Azure AD objects (users, groups, and devices)
Create users and groups; manage user and group properties; manage device
settings; perform bulk user updates; manage guest accounts
5.3 Implement and manage hybrid identities
Install Azure AD Connect, including password hash and pass-through
synchronization; use Azure AD Connect to configure federation with on-premises
Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS); manage Azure AD Connect; manage
password sync and password writeback
5.4 Implement multi-factor authentication (MFA)
May include but is not limited to: Configure user accounts for MFA, enable MFA
by using bulk update, configure fraud alerts, configure bypass options,
configure Trusted IPs, configure verification methods
10. Monitor and back up Azure resources (10-15%)
10.1 Monitor resources by using Azure Monitor
. configure and interpret metrics
o analyze metrics across subscriptions
. configure Log Analytics
o implement a Log Analytics workspace
o configure diagnostic settings
. query and analyze logs
o create a query
o save a query to the dashboard
o interpret graphs
. set up alerts and actions
o create and test alerts
o create action groups
o view alerts in Azure Monitor
o analyze alerts across subscriptions
. configure Application Insights
. NOT: Network monitoring
10.2 Implement backup and recovery
. configure and review backup reports
. perform backup and restore operations by using Azure Backup Service
. create a Recovery Services Vault
o use soft delete to recover Azure VMs
. create and configure backup policy
. perform site-to-site recovery by using Azure Site Recovery
. NOT: SQL or HANA
QUESTION 1 You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com and an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named AKS1.
An administrator reports that she is unable to grant access to AKS1 to the users
in contoso.com.
You need to ensure that access to AKS1 can be granted to the contoso.com users.
What should you do first?
A. From contoso.com, modify the Organization relationships settings.
B. From contoso.com, create an OAuth 2.0 authorization endpoint.
C. Recreate AKS1.
D. From AKS1, create a namespace.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You have a Microsoft 365 tenant and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant named contoso.com.
You plan to grant three users named User1, User2, and User3 access to a
temporary Microsoft SharePoint
document library named Library1.
You need to create groups for the users. The solution must ensure that the
groups are deleted automatically after 180 days.
Which two groups should you create? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. an Office 365 group that uses the Assigned membership type
B. a Security group that uses the Assigned membership type
C. an Office 365 group that uses the Dynamic User membership type
D. a Security group that uses the Dynamic User membership type
E. a Security group that uses the Dynamic Device membership type
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 You recently created a new Azure subscription that contains a user named
Admin1.
Admin1 attempts to deploy an Azure Marketplace resource by using an Azure
Resource Manager template.
Admin1 deploys the template by using Azure PowerShell and receives the following
error message: “User
failed validation to purchase resources. Error message: “Legal terms have not
been accepted for this item on
this subscription. To accept legal terms, please go to the Azure portal (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?
LinkId=534873) and configure programmatic deployment for the Marketplace item or
create it there for the first time.”
You need to ensure that Admin1 can deploy the Marketplace resource successfully.
What should you do?
A. From Azure PowerShell, run the Set-AzApiManagementSubscription cmdlet
B. From the Azure portal, register the Microsoft.Marketplace resource provider
C. From Azure PowerShell, run the Set-AzMarketplaceTerms cmdlet
D. From the Azure portal, assign the Billing administrator role to Admin1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains 5,000
user accounts.
You create a new user account named AdminUser1.
You need to assign the User administrator administrative role to AdminUser1.
What should you do from the user account properties?
A. From the Licenses blade, assign a new license
B. From the Directory role blade, modify the directory role
C. From the Groups blade, invite the user account to a new group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains 100 user accounts.
You purchase 10 Azure AD Premium P2 licenses for the tenant.
You need to ensure that 10 users can use all the Azure AD Premium features.
What should you do?
A. From the Licenses blade of Azure AD, assign a license
B. From the Groups blade of each user, invite the users to a group
C. From the Azure AD domain, add an enterprise application
D. From the Directory role blade of each user, modify the directory role
Welcome to the F5 Networks 101 - Application Delivery Fundamentals compiled
Study Guide. The purpose of this guide is to help you prepare for the F5 101 -
Application Delivery Fundamentals exam. The contents of this document are based
on the 101 - Application Delivery Fundamentals Blueprint Guide.
This study guide provides students with some of the basic foundational knowledge
required to pass the exam.
This study guide is a collection of information and therefore not a completely
original work. The majority of the information is compiled from sources that are
located on the Internet. All of the information locations are
referenced at the top of each topic instead of in an Appendix of this document.
This was done to help the reader access the referenced information easier
without having to search through a formal appendix. This
guide also references a book that should be basic reading for some of the topics
on this exam.
The F5 Certified team provides an official 101 - Application Delivery
Fundamentals Study Guide to all candidates. The F5 Certified Study Guide is a
list of reading material that will help any student build a broad
base of general knowledge that can assist in not only their exam success but
also in becoming a well-rounded systems engineer. The Resource Guide will be
available to the candidate through the certification.f5.com
website once they are qualified for the Application Delivery Fundamentals exam.
There are not any pre-requisite to this exam. This guide was prepared by an F5 employee but is not an official F5 document
and is not supported by F5 Networks.
Section 1 - OSI 5 Objective - 1.01 Explain, compare, and contrast the OSI layers
Objective - 1.02 Explain Protocols and Technologies Specific to the Data Link
Layer
Objective - 1.03 Explain protocols and apply technologies specific to the
network layer
Objective - 1.04 Explain the features and functionality of protocols and
technologies specific to the transport layer
Objective - 1.05 Explain the features and functionality of protocols and
technologies specific to the application layer
Section 2 - F5 Solutions and Technology Objective - 2.01 Articulate the role of F5 products
Objective - 2.02 Explain the purpose, use, and advantages of iRules
Objective - 2.03 Explain the purpose, use, and advantages of iApps
Objective - 2.04 Explain the purpose of and use cases for full proxy and packet
forwarding/packet based architectures
Objective - 2.05 Explain the advantages and configurations of high availability
(HA)
Section 3 – Load Balancing Essentials Objective - 3.01 Discuss the purpose of, use cases for, and key
considerations related to load balancing
Objective - 3.02 Differentiate between a client and server
Section 4 – Security Objective - 4.01 Compare and contrast positive and negative security models
Objective - 4.02 Explain the purpose of cryptographic services
Objective - 4.03 Describe the purpose and advantages of authentication
Objective - 4.04 Describe the purpose, advantages, and use cases of IPsec and
SSL VPN
Section 5 – Application Delivery Platforms Objective - 5.01 Describe the purpose, advantages, use cases, and challenges
associated with hardware based application delivery platforms and virtual
machines
Objective - 5.02 Describe the purpose of the various types of advanced
acceleration techniques
QUESTION: 1 To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can
create a _______ containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it
within the policy? (Fill in)
A. Visual Policy Editor
B. Policy Editor
C. Visual Editor
D. Policy creator
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can
create a policy containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it
within the policy using the ________. (Fill in)
A. Deployment Wizard
B. Setup Wizard
C. Policy Wizard
D. Visual Wizard
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 The Policy Builder benefits include:
A. Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge
B. Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C. All of the above
D. Very low administrative impact
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4 APM administrators can configure access policies granting users which two
types of access?
A. CIFS access
B. Client/server access
C. Web application access
D. Proxy access
E. RDC access
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5 Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A. They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM
B. They enable granular control of traffic
C. They can be used as templates for creating new applications
D. They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
E. They provide an automated way to create LTM objects
Answer: B
QUESTION: 6 APM provides access control lists at which two OSI layers? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 7
D. Layer 6
E. Layer 2
Answer: B,C
QUESTION: 7 TMOS is an F5 software module that runs on the BIG-IP platform.
